I beg to differ. At the very least, you implied they were "not legal":
No, I used terminology specifically. If you decide to read more into it you do so at your own risk.
By your own argument, I would say you are trying to muddy the waters then. Refer to YOUR post where you use the words "not legal".
No, you are operating on an X or Y basis. Tax isn't X or Y. It is X or Y or numerous possibilities in between. But you just want it to be black and white, AKA "legal" or "not legal". Entirely the marketing ploy of these promoters who could quite happily say "this isn't illegal" but fail to mention their opinion drastically differs from HMRC and has never been tested in a court of law appropriately.
I suggest you read my post again properly. There are 2 faults in what you've said:
1. Just because HMRC "didn't accept" something, doesnt make it wrong. It's their *opinion*.
Of course it's their opinion. But that doesn't make your opinion right either.
It's a different sales pitch though to say "hey, look at this scheme, there's no real case law to support it and we know HMRC aren't keen on it so consider it a high risk option. But to date there's nothing that says we're technically wrong". Bit of a different presentation that.
2. 2017 isnt when they changed their opinion. 2015 is - post RFC. Because the RFC ruling made employers liable for the tax, so HMRC decided to use the 2019 Loan Charge to get the money from individuals (with the Royal Assent of the Finance Bill in 2017).
This is convoluted and a bit confusing. I have no real idea the point you are trying to get at. The RFC ruling meant that the initial step of transferring money to a trust didn't prevent it also being part of the taxable remuneration of the employee. The case was dealing with the simple fundamental question of whether the money was even taxable income.
The liability to pay wasn't part of the question if I recall correctly, which I may not as it's been a number of years since I read it.
The question of whose liability it is doesn't impact the fundamental question of whether a liability exists in the first place. Your point about the loan charge moving who pays it isn't even really correct. The loan charge at first instance applies to the employer who must report and pay the tax. If they don't then the employee has to. Hardly egregious when you consider they had the benefit of the money to begin with.
I have whiffs of you being aware of the following case, although I assume you're not up to date nor aware of the particular arguments failure at the FTT:
https://www.bailii.org/uk/cases/UKFTT/TC/2020/TC07884.html
The 2010 disguised renumeration rules brought into doubt employed schemes, not self employed schemes. Again, it's a simple but pertinent point which I'll repeat (because you have not answered it):
The 2017 changes weren't really needed prior to 2017 as the use of self-employed status to circumvent the laws wasn't really used. Most people were happy with the Personal Companies/Umbrellas and using EBTs or whatever to avoid tax. The rise of self-employed schemes only really started to be heavily market in the late teens from my experience. HMRC is many things, one of the things that probably won't be too controversial is that they're a fairly reactive organisation.
Hilarious. You have no idea who I am, as I have no idea who you are. I wouldnt be so bold as to make claims of superior knowledge on this topic. For all you know, I could be a tax barrister.
I'll let my arguments do the talking.
Are you a tax barrister? If so why am I having to explain the nuances of tax to you? Why am I even having to point out the glaring holes in your argument, if you are apparently a tax barrister?
I'll just remind you of this as well:
though, not because Im smart, savvy or more well informed - but moreso by luck and circumstance
If you are apparently a tax barrister why weren't you "more well informed"?